SAMPLE
EXAM QUESTIONS
Question
1 Which tools help to support static testing?
a.
Static analysis tools and test execution tools.
b. Review process support tools, static analysis
tools and coverage measurement tools.
c.
Dynamic analysis tools and modeling tools.
d. Review process support tools, static analysis
tools and modeling tools.
Question
2 Which test activities are supported by test harness or unit test framework
tools?
a.
Test management and control.
b.
Test specification and design.
c.
Test execution and logging.
d.
Performance and monitoring.
Question
3 What are the potential benefits from using tools in general to support
testing?
a.
Greater quality of code, reduction in the number of testers needed, better
objectives for testing.
b. Greater repeatability of tests, reduction in
repetitive work, objective assessment.
c.
Greater responsiveness of users, reduction of tests run, objectives not
necessary.
d. Greater quality of code, reduction in paperwork,
fewer objections to the tests.
Question
4 What is a potential risk in using tools to support testing?
a. Unrealistic expectations, expecting the tool to
do too much.
b.
Insufficient reliance on the tool, i.e. still doing manual testing when a test
execution tool has been purchased.
c.
The tool may find defects that aren't there.
d. The tool will repeat exactly the same thing it
did the previous time.
Question
5 Which of the following are advanced scripting techniques for test execution
tools?
a.
Data-driven and keyword-driven
b.
Data-driven and capture-driven
c.
Capture-driven and keyhole-driven
d.
Playback-driven and keyword-driven
Question
6 Which of the following would NOT be done as part of selecting a tool for an
organization?
a.
Assess organizational maturity, strengths and weaknesses.
b.
Roll out the tool to as many users as possible within the organization.
c.
Evaluate the tool features against clear requirements and objective criteria.
d.
Identify internal requirements for coaching and mentoring in the use of the
tool.
Question
7 Which of the following is a goal for a proof-of-concept or pilot phase for
tool evaluation?
a.
Decide which tool to acquire.
b.
Decide on the main objectives and requirements for this type of tool.
c.
Evaluate the tool vendor including training, support and commercial aspects.
d.
Decide on standard ways of using, managing, storing and maintaining the tool
and the test
assets.
MOCK EXAM
On
the real exam, you will have 60 minutes to work through 40 questions of approximately
the same difficulty mix and Syllabus distribution as shown in the following
mock exam. After you have taken this mock exam, check your answers with the
answer key.
Question
1 What is a key characteristic of specification-based testing techniques?
a. Tests are derived from
information about how the software is constructed.
b. Tests are derived from models (formal
or informal) that specify the problem to be solved by the software or its
components.
c. Tests are derived based on the
skills and experience of the tester.
d. Tests are derived from the extent of
the coverage of structural elements of the system or components.
Question
2 An exhaustive test suite would include:
a. All combinations of input
values and preconditions.
b. All combinations of input
values and output values.
c.
All pairs of input value and preconditions.
d.
All states and state transitions.
Question
3 Which statement about testing is true?
a. Testing is started as early as
possible in the life cycle.
b. Testing is started after the code is
written so that we have a system with which to work.
c. Testing is most economically
done at the end of the life cycle.
d. Testing can only be done by an
independent test team.
Question
4 For a test procedure that is checking modifications of customers on a
database, which two steps below would be the lowest priority if we didn't have
time to execute all of the steps?
1
Open database and confirm existing customer
2 Change customer's marital status from
single to married
3 Change customer's street name from
Parks Road to Park Road
4
Change customer's credit limit from 500 to 750
5 Replace customer's first name with
exactly the same first name
6 Close the customer record and close
the database
a.
Tests 1 and 4
b.
Tests 2 and 3
c.
Tests 5 and 6
d.
Tests 3 and 5
Question
5 Consider the following list of either product or project risks:
I An incorrect calculation of fees might
shortchange the organization.
II A vendor might fail to deliver a system
component on time.
IIIA
defect might allow hackers to gain administrative privileges.
IVA skills gap might occur in a
new technology used in the system.
V A defect-prioritization process might
overload the development team.
Which
of the following statements is true?
a.
I is primarily a product risk and II, III, IV and V are primarily project
risks.
b.
II and V are primarily product risks and I, III and V are primarily project
risks.
c.
I and III are primarily product risks, while II, IV and V are primarily project
risks.
d.
Ill and V are primarily product risks, while I, II and IV are primarily project
risks.
Question 6 Consider the following
statements about regression tests:
I They may usefully be automated if they are well
designed.
II
They are the same as confirmation tests (re-tests).
IIIThey are a way to reduce the risk of a change
having an adverse affect elsewhere in the system.
IVThey
are only effective if automated. Which pair of statements is true?
a.
I and II
b.
I and III
c.
II and III
d.
II and IV
Question
7 Which of the following could be used to assess the coverage achieved for
structure-based (white-box) test techniques?
V
Decision outcomes exercised W Partitions exercised
X
Boundaries exercised
Y
Conditions or multiple conditions exercised Z Statements exercised
a.
V,WorY
b.
WXorY
c.
V,YorZ
d.
W,XorZ
Question 8 Review the following portion of an
incident report.
1
I place any item in the shopping cart.
2
I place any other (different) item in the shopping cart.
3 I remove the first item from the shopping cart,
but leave the second item in the cart.
4
I click the < Checkout > button.
5 I expect the system to display the first checkout
screen. Instead, it gives the pop-up error message, 'No items in shopping cart.
Click <Okay> to continue shopping.'
6
I click < Okay >.
7
I expect the system to return to the main window to allow me to continue adding
and removing items from the cart. Instead, the browser terminates.
8
The failure described in steps 5 and 7 occurred in each of three attempts to
perform steps 1,2,3,4 and 6.
Assume
that no other narrative information is included in the report. Which of the
following important aspects of a good incident report is missing from this
incident report?
a.
The steps to reproduce the failure.
b.
The summary.
c.
The check for intermittence.
d.
The use of an objective tone.
Question
9 Which of the following are benefits and which are risks of using tools to support
testing?
1
Over-reliance on the tool
2
Greater consistency and repeatability
3
Objective assessment
4
Unrealistic expectations
5 Underestimating the effort required to maintain
the test assets generated by the tool
6
Ease of access to information about tests or testing
7
Repetitive work is reduced
a.
Benefits: 3,4,6 and 7. Risks: 1,2 and 5
b.
Benefits: 1,2,3 and 7, Risks: 4,5 and 6
c.
Benefits: 2,3,6 and 7. Risks: 1,4 and 5
d.
Benefits: 2,3,5 and 6. Risks: 1,4 and 7
Question
10 Which of the following encourages objective testing?
a.
Unit testing
b.
System testing
c.
Independent testing
d.
Destructive testing
Question
11 Of the following statements about reviews of specifications, which statement
is true?
a.
Reviews are not generally cost effective as the meetings are time consuming and
require preparation and follow up.
b.
There is no need to prepare for or follow up on reviews.
c.
Reviews must be controlled by the author.
d.
Reviews are a cost effective early static test on the system.
Question 12 Consider the
following list of test process activities:
I
Analysis and design
II
Test closure activities
IIIEvaluating
exit criteria and reporting IVPlanning and control
V
Implementation and execution
Which of the following places
these in their logical sequence?
a.
I, II, III, IV and V
b.
IV, I, V, III and II.
c.
IV, I, V,II and III.
d.
I, IV, V HI and II.
Question
13 Test objectives vary between projects and so must be stated in the test
plan. Which one of the following test objectives might conflict with the proper
tester mindset?
a.
Show that the system works before we ship it.
b.
Find as many defects as possible.
c.
Reduce the overall level of product risk.
d.
Prevent defects through early involvement.
Question
14 Which test activities are supported by test data preparation tools?
a.
Test management and control
b.
Test specification and design
c.
Test execution and logging
d.
Performance and monitoring
Question
15 If you are flying with an economy ticket, there is a possibility that you
may get upgraded to business class, especially if you hold a gold card in the
airline's frequent flyer program. If you don't hold a gold card, there is a
possibility that you will get 'bumped' off the flight if it is full and you
check in late. This is shown in Figure 7.1. Note that each box (i.e. statement)
has been numbered.
Three
tests have already been run:
Test
1: Gold card holder who gets upgraded to
business
class
Test 2: Non-gold card holder who
stays in economy
Test 3: A person who is bumped
from the flight
What
additional tests would be needed to achieve 100% decision coverage?
a.
A gold card holder who stays in economy and a non-gold card holder who gets
upgraded to business class.
b.
A gold card holder and a non-gold card holder who are both upgraded to business
class.
c.
A gold card holder and a non-gold card holder who both stay in economy class.
d.
A gold card holder who is upgraded to business class and a non-gold card holder
who stays in economy class.
Question
16 Consider the following types of tools:
V
Test management tools W Static analysis tools
X
Modeling tools
Y
Dynamic analysis tools
Z
Performance testing tools
Which
of the following of these tools is most likely to be used by developers?
a.
W,XandY
b. VYandZ
c. V,WandZ
d. X,YandZ
Question 17 What is a test
condition?
a. An input, expected outcome,
precondition and postcondition
b.
The steps to be taken to get the system to a given point
c.
Something that can be tested
d. A specific state of the
software, e.g. before a test can be run
Question
18 Which of the following is the most important difference between the
metrics-based approach and the expert-based approach to test estimation?
a. The metrics-based approach is more
accurate than the expert-based approach.
b. The metrics-based approach uses
calculations from historical data while the expert-based approach relies on
team wisdom.
c. The metrics-based approach can
be used to verify an estimate created using the expert-based approach, but not
vice versa.
d. The expert-based approach takes
longer than the metrics-based approach.
Question
19 If the temperature falls below 18 degrees, the heating is switched on. When
the temperature reaches 21 degrees, the heating is switched off. What is the
minimum set of test input values to cover all valid equivalence partitions?
a.
15,19 and 25 degrees
b.
17,18,20 and 21 degrees
c.
18,20 and 22 degrees
d.
16 and 26 degrees
Question
20 Which of these statements about functional testing is true?
a. Structural testing is more
important than functional testing as it addresses the code.
b. Functional testing is useful
throughout the life cycle and can be applied by business analysts, testers,
developers and users.
c.
Functional testing is more powerful than static testing as you actually run the
system and see what happens.
d.
Inspection is a form of functional testing.
Question
21 What is the purpose of confirmation testing?
a.
To confirm the users' confidence that the system will meet their business
needs.
b.
To confirm that a defect has been fixed correctly.
c.
To confirm that no unexpected changes have been introduced or uncovered as a
result of changes made.
d.
To confirm that the detailed logic of a component conforms to its
specification.
Question
22 Which success factors are required for good tool support within an
organization?
a.
Acquiring the best tool and ensuring that all testers use it.
b.
Adapting processes to fit with the use of the tool and monitoring tool use and
benefits.
c.
Setting ambitious objectives for tool benefits and aggressive deadlines for
achieving them.
d.
Adopting practices from other successful organizations and ensuring that
initial ways of using the tool are maintained.
Question
23 Which of the following best describes integration testing?
a.
Testing performed to expose faults in the interfaces and in the interaction
between integrated components.
b.
Testing to verify that a component is ready for integration.
c.
Testing to verify that the test environment can be integrated with the product.
d.
Integration of automated software test suites with the product.
Question 24 According to the
ISTQB Glossary, debugging:
a.
Is part of the fundamental testing process.
b. Includes the repair of the
cause of a failure.
c. Involves intentionally adding
known defects.
d. Follows the steps of a test
procedure.
Question
25 Which of the following could be a root cause of a defect in financial
software in which an incorrect interest rate is calculated?
a. Insufficient funds were
available to pay the interest rate calculated.
b. Insufficient calculations of
compound interest were included.
c. Insufficient training was
given to the developers concerning compound interest calculation rules.
d. Inaccurate calculators were
used to calculate the expected results.
Question
26 Assume postal rates for 'light letters' are:
$0.25 up to 10 grams; $0.35 up to
50 grams; $0.45 up to 75 grams; $0.55 up to 100 grams.
Which
test inputs (in grams) would be selected using boundary value analysis?
a.
0,9,19,49,50,74,75, 99,100
b. 10,50,75,100,250,1000
c. 0,1,10,11,50,51,75,76,100,101
d. 25,26,35,36,45,46,55,56
Question
27 Consider the following decision table.
Given
this decision table, what is the expected result for the following test cases?
TCI:
A 26-year-old on business but with violations or accidents on his driving
record
TC2: A 62-year-old tourist with a
clean driving record
a.
TCI: Don't supply car; TC2: Supply car with premium charge.
b.
TCI: Supply car with premium charge; TC2: Supply car with no premium charge.
c.
TCI: Don't supply car; TC2: Supply car with no premium charge.
d.
TCI: Supply car with premium charge; TC2: Don't supply car.
Question
28 What is exploratory testing?
a.
The process of anticipating or guessing where defects might occur.
b.
A systematic approach to identifying specific equivalent classes of input.
c.
The testing carried out by a chartered engineer.
d.
Concurrent test design, test execution, test logging and learning.
Question
29 What does it mean if a set of tests has achieved 90% statement coverage?
a.
9 out of 10 decision outcomes have been exercised by this set of tests.
b.
9 out of 10 statements have been exercised by this set of tests.
c.
9 out of 10 tests have been run on this set of software.
d.
9 out of 10 requirements statements about the software are correct.
Question
30 A test plan is written specifically to describe a level of testing where the
primary goal is establishing
confidence in the system. Which
of the following is a likely name for this document?
a.
Master test plan
b.
System test plan
c.
Acceptance test plan
d.
Project plan
Question
31 Requirement 24.3. A 'Postage Assistant' will calculate the amount of postage
due for letters and small packages up to 1 kilogram in weight. The inputs are:
the type of item (letter, book or other package) and the weight in grams. Which
of the following conform to the required contents of a test case?
a. Test the
three types of item to post and three different weights [Req 24.3]
b. Test 1: letter, 10 grams, postage €0.25. Test 2:
book, 500 grams, postage €1.00. Test 3: package, 999 gram, postage €2.53 [Req
24.3]
c. Test 1: letter, 10 grams to Belgium. Test 2: book
500 grams to USA. Test 3: package, 999 grams to South Africa [Req 24.3]
d. Test 1: letter 10 grams, Belgium, postage €0.25.
Test 2: package 999 grams to South Africa, postage €2.53
Question
32 What is the best description of static analysis?
a.
The analysis of batch programs
b.
The reviewing of test plans
c. The analysis of program code or other software
artifacts
d.
The use of black-box testing
Question
33 System test execution on a project is planned for eight weeks. After a week
of testing, a tester suggests that the test objective stated in the test plan
of 'finding as many defects as possible during system test' might be more
closely met by redirecting the test effort according to which test principle?
a.
Impossibility of exhaustive testing.
b.
Importance of early testing.
c.
The absence of errors fallacy.
d.
Defect clustering.
Question
34 Consider the following activities that might relate to configuration
management:
I
Identify and document the characteristics of a test item
II
Control changes to the characteristics of a test item
IIICheck a test itemfor defects introduced by a
change
IVRecord and report the status of changes to test
items
V
Confirm that changes to a test item fixed a defect Which of the following
statements is true?
a. Only I is a configuration management task.
b. All are configuration management tasks.
c.
I, II and III are configuration management tasks.
d.
I, II and IV are configuration management tasks.
Question
35 Consider the following state transition diagram.
Given
this diagram, which test case belowcovers every valid transition?
a.
SS-S1-S2-S4-S1-S3-ES
b.
SS-S1-S2-S3-S4-S3-S4-ES
c.
SS-S1-S2-S4-S1-S3-S4-S1-S3-ES
d.
SS-S1-S4-S2-S1-S3-ES
Question
36 A test plan included the following clauses among the exit criteria:
•
System test shall continue until all significant product risks have been
covered to the extent specified in the product risk analysis document.
•
System test shall continue until no must-fix defects remain against any
significant product risks speci fied in the product risk analysis document.
During
test execution, the test team detects 430 must-fix defects prior to release and
all must-fix defects are resolved. After release, the customers find 212 new
defects, none of which were detected during testing. This means that only 67%
of the important defects were found prior to release, a percentage which is
well below average in your industry. You are asked to find the root cause for
the high number of field failures. Consider the following list of explanations:
I
Not all the tests planned for the significant product risks were executed.
II
The organization has unrealistic expectations of the percentage of defects that
testing can find.
IIIA
version-control issue has resulted in the release of a version of the software
that was used during early testing.
IVThe
product risk analysis failed to identify all the important risks from a
customer point of view.
V The product
risk analysis was not updated during the project as new information became
available.
Which
of the following statements indicate which explanations are possible root
causes?
a. II, III and IV are possible
explanations, but I and V are not possible.
b.
All five are possible explanations.
c. I, IV and V are possible
explanations, but II and III are not possible.
d. Ill, IV and V are possible
explanations, but I and II are not possible.
Question
37 What
is the most important factor for successful performance of reviews?
a.
A separate scribe during the logging meeting
b.
Trained participants and review leaders
c. The availability of tools to
support the review process
d.
A reviewed test plan
Question
38 Consider
the following statements about maintenance testing:
I It requires both re-test and
regression test and may require additional new tests.
II It is testing to show how easy
it will be to maintain the system.
IIIIt is difficult to scope and
therefore needs careful risk and impact analysis.
IVIt
need not be done for emergency bug fixes. Which of the statements are true?
a. I and III
b. I and IV
c. II and III
d. II and IV
Question
39 Which
two specification-based testing techniques are most closely related to each
other?
a.
Decision tables and state transition testing
b.
Equivalence partitioning and state transition testing
c.
Decision tables and boundary value analysis
d. Equivalence partitioning and
boundary value analysis
Question
40 Which
of the following is an advantage of independent testing?
a.
Independent testers don't have to spend time communicating with the project
team.
b.
Programmers can stop worrying about the quality of their work and focus on
producing more code.
c.
The others on a project can pressure the independent testers to accelerate
testing at the end of the schedule.
d.
Independent testers sometimes question the assumptions behind requirements,
designs and implementations.
ANSWERS TO
SAMPLE EXAM QUESTIONS
his
section contains the answers and the learning objectives for the sample
questions in each chapter and for the full mock paper in Chapter 7.
If you
get any of the questions wrong or if you weren't sure about the answer, then
the learning objective tells you which part of the Syllabus to go back to in order
to help you understand why the correct answer is the right one. The learn-ing
objectives are listed at the beginning of each section. For example, if you got
Question 4 in Chapter 1 wrong, then go to Section 1.2 and read the first
learn-ing objective. Then re-read the part of the chapter that deals with that
topic
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